OK, this might be a little specialist, but I have confidence in JREF's unbounded talents :)
I'm reading a fascinating book on non-Euclidean geometry - one of the sections looks at how Taurinus created a non-Euclidean geometry by having the normal spherical formula for trigonometry on a sphere with imaginary radius...and this gives the formula below:
Cosh(a/k) = cosh(b/k).cosh(c/k) - sinh(b/k).sinh(c/k)cosA
Now, the book then states that when we use the exponential forms of the hyperbolic functions, we see that as k tends to infinity we are left with the familiar:
a^2 = b^2 +c^2 - 2bc CosA
Now that's pretty incredible - as it means that our "normal" Euclidean geometry would be a special case of a wider generalised geometry. However, when I try and let k tend to infinity I don't get anything like the required formula (I actually get 1 = 1 which whilst true isn't very interesting!)
I simply substituted the exponential forms to give:
0.5(e^(a/k) + e^(-a/k) )= RHS etc etc
but then when k tends to infinity for each exponential term we have e^(a/k) and e^(-a/k) both tending towards 1. Which ultimately gives 1 = 1....
Any ideas?
Thanks :)
I'm reading a fascinating book on non-Euclidean geometry - one of the sections looks at how Taurinus created a non-Euclidean geometry by having the normal spherical formula for trigonometry on a sphere with imaginary radius...and this gives the formula below:
Cosh(a/k) = cosh(b/k).cosh(c/k) - sinh(b/k).sinh(c/k)cosA
Now, the book then states that when we use the exponential forms of the hyperbolic functions, we see that as k tends to infinity we are left with the familiar:
a^2 = b^2 +c^2 - 2bc CosA
Now that's pretty incredible - as it means that our "normal" Euclidean geometry would be a special case of a wider generalised geometry. However, when I try and let k tend to infinity I don't get anything like the required formula (I actually get 1 = 1 which whilst true isn't very interesting!)
I simply substituted the exponential forms to give:
0.5(e^(a/k) + e^(-a/k) )= RHS etc etc
but then when k tends to infinity for each exponential term we have e^(a/k) and e^(-a/k) both tending towards 1. Which ultimately gives 1 = 1....
Any ideas?
Thanks :)
via JREF Forum http://ift.tt/1mf25Uo
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