I have heard here and other places that PEMDAS (parentheses then exponents then multiplication/division and then addition/subtraction) is not the only that way to evaluate real number expressions. I was wondering if there was a way of finding a mathematical proof for this statement.
My intuition says that PEMDAS it's not a logical consequence of the axioms for the real numbers simply because the axioms of real numbers say nothing about operator precedence. However, I'm not sure that it's sufficient because it may be possible to derive PEMDAS from the axioms of real numbers. I just don't know how to do that.
My intuition says that PEMDAS it's not a logical consequence of the axioms for the real numbers simply because the axioms of real numbers say nothing about operator precedence. However, I'm not sure that it's sufficient because it may be possible to derive PEMDAS from the axioms of real numbers. I just don't know how to do that.
via International Skeptics Forum http://ift.tt/2dtV5Fx
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