Essentially the question is about whether it's reasonable to prosecute and judge people for actions that are illegal and criminalized in the territory they are currently in despite the fact that said actions took place within another territory where said actions were not illegal. If so, to what degree?
In many cases there is often a general rule of "double punishment", which is to say that if one is supposed to be sentenced or convicted of a crime that took place abroad it needs to be illegal in both locales. Sweden has this general rule with a few exceptions, for example regarding "female genital mutilation", "child sex tourism" and other sex-crimes against people under 18 years. In practice that means that the actual legality of the action(s) where the actions took place is irrelevant to whether or not they can be punished for them in Swedish courts.
However recently the Swedish government made a really controversial suggestion that another exception to this rule should be made regarding prostitution, which means that people who are currently in Sweden could be sentenced because they paid for sex even if the payment and sex took place in another country where it's perfectly legal to buy and sell sex.
This suggestion was pretty much criticized by all the other parties except the far-left feminist nutjob party and some legislators from the other parties pointed out that if Sweden made such a rule why shouldn't other countries that, for example, prohibit and punish people for sodomy/buggery/etc be able to punish people from Sweden that had gay sex in Sweden. I thought that was a good point.
So would it be reasonable to punish Swedish "johns" (with a fine) because they went over to Denmark or Germany and had sex with a prostitute?
In many cases there is often a general rule of "double punishment", which is to say that if one is supposed to be sentenced or convicted of a crime that took place abroad it needs to be illegal in both locales. Sweden has this general rule with a few exceptions, for example regarding "female genital mutilation", "child sex tourism" and other sex-crimes against people under 18 years. In practice that means that the actual legality of the action(s) where the actions took place is irrelevant to whether or not they can be punished for them in Swedish courts.
However recently the Swedish government made a really controversial suggestion that another exception to this rule should be made regarding prostitution, which means that people who are currently in Sweden could be sentenced because they paid for sex even if the payment and sex took place in another country where it's perfectly legal to buy and sell sex.
This suggestion was pretty much criticized by all the other parties except the far-left feminist nutjob party and some legislators from the other parties pointed out that if Sweden made such a rule why shouldn't other countries that, for example, prohibit and punish people for sodomy/buggery/etc be able to punish people from Sweden that had gay sex in Sweden. I thought that was a good point.
So would it be reasonable to punish Swedish "johns" (with a fine) because they went over to Denmark or Germany and had sex with a prostitute?
via International Skeptics Forum http://ift.tt/1HZnbNn
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