I was reading this story this morning
http://ift.tt/17UddCi
Is that at all constitutional? Can the state pass a law that says local communities cannot pass laws banning an activity?
I think about it the other way. Local governments can pass laws to make something legal, but if the state says it is illegal, they still can enforce it, regardless of the local allowance. But how can the state tell a local government that they have to allow something they don't want?
Also, it would be different if it was a constitutional issue. If the state/federal constitution says something in the state has to be allowed, then local governments can't ban it. But this is just a law that is passed. Does the state government have the authority to do that?
Saving the partisan aspect of this for another thread, I just wonder about the whole concept. Does anyone know of any examples of this?
http://ift.tt/17UddCi
Is that at all constitutional? Can the state pass a law that says local communities cannot pass laws banning an activity?
I think about it the other way. Local governments can pass laws to make something legal, but if the state says it is illegal, they still can enforce it, regardless of the local allowance. But how can the state tell a local government that they have to allow something they don't want?
Also, it would be different if it was a constitutional issue. If the state/federal constitution says something in the state has to be allowed, then local governments can't ban it. But this is just a law that is passed. Does the state government have the authority to do that?
Saving the partisan aspect of this for another thread, I just wonder about the whole concept. Does anyone know of any examples of this?
via International Skeptics Forum http://ift.tt/1Pvb7xh
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